Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 07:43
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What is the XXX XXX Keerna Kappor video?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's your take on Eternal Sunshine of the Spotless Mind? How has it affected you?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.